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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:

1. A 14-month-old boy is brought to see you for a well-baby check-up and is noted to have only one testis.
Ultrasound confirms an undescended testis. Which one of the following is the best next step?

A) Hormonal therapy with gonadotropins
B) Surgical removal of the undescended testis
C) Observation for a year
D) Hormonal therapy with testosterone
E) Surgical orchiopexy

2. A 57-year-old man presents with low back pain. Radiographs of the lumbar spine show a narrowed disk space at L4-L5, anterior osteophyte formation at this level, and sclerosis of the L4-L5 end plates. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis.
B) Osteomyelitis of the lumbar spine.
C) Metastatic disease from the prostate.
D) Paget disease.
E) Degenerative disk disease.

3. A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks ' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

A) Oligohydramnios
B) Intrauterine growth restriction
C) Partial hydatidiform mole
D) Dating error
E) Bicornuate uterus

4. A 3-week-old boy is brought by his parents to your clinic for a well-child visit. The newborn was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy. He is exclusively breastfed and is thriving. Physical examination findings are normal except for jaundice. Total bilirubin is 172 #mol/L (#100), and conjugated bilirubin is 4 #mol/L (#5). Results of a complete blood count and reticulocyte count are within the normal range. The results of a direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test were negative. Which one of the following, if any, is the most appropriate investigation?

A) No investigation required.
B) Urine culture.
C) Test for galactosemia.
D) Hepatobiliary ultrasonography.
E) Liver enzymes and serum albumin.

5. A 16-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 12-hour history of worsening right lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea. She is in no distress and vital signs are normal. Her abdomen is soft but locally tender in the right iliac fossa, and bowel sounds are active. White blood cell count is 7.6 × 10#/L (4-
10), C-reactive protein is 2.3 mg/L ( < 10) and serum beta human chorionic gonadotropin is undetectable.
Ultrasound reveals a small amount of fluid in the pelvis, and the appendix is not clearly apparent. Which one of the following is the best next management step?

A) Monitoring and reassessment in 12 hours.
B) Serial radiography of the abdomen.
C) Laparoscopic appendectomy.
D) Enhanced computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
E) Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole.

Solutions: