Real Exam Questions 312-38 Dumps Exam Questions in here [Oct-2023]
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To earn the EC-COUNCIL 312-38 certification, individuals need to pass the certification exam. 312-38 exam is a comprehensive assessment of an individual's knowledge and skills in network security and defense. 312-38 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and has a time limit of four hours. Individuals who pass the exam are awarded the EC-COUNCIL 312-38 certification, which is valid for three years. EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND certification is a testament to an individual's commitment to network security and defense and showcases their expertise in the field.
NEW QUESTION # 105
In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. The router does not find a valid operating system image.
- B. The router does not have a configuration file.
- C. There is a need to set operating parameters.
- D. The user interrupts the boot sequence.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The system enters ROM monitor mode if the router does not find a valid operating system image,
or if a user interrupts the boot sequence. From ROM monitor mode, a user can boot the device or
perform diagnostic tests.
Answer option A is incorrect. If the router does not have a configuration file, it will automatically
enter Setup mode when the user switches it on. Setup mode creates an initial configuration.
Answer option B is incorrect. Privileged EXEC is used for setting operating parameters.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following types of RAID is also known as disk striping?
- A. RAID 2
- B. RAID 0
- C. RAID 1
- D. RAID 3
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following is a type of VPN that involves a single VPN gateway?
- A. Extranet-based VPN
- B. PPTP VPN
- C. Intranet-based VPN
- D. Remote-access VPN
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following routing metrics is the sum of the costs associated with each link traversed?
- A. Path length
- B. Bandwidth
- C. Routing delay
- D. Communication cost
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 109
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The ____________ is used for routing voice conversations over the Internet. It is also known by other names such as IP Telephony, Broadband Telephony, etc.
Answer:
Explanation:
VoIP
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following are the common security problems involved in communications and email?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. False message
- B. Identity theft
- C. Eavesdropping
- D. Message modification
- E. Message replay
- F. Message digest
- G. Message repudiation
Answer: A,B,C,D,E,G
Explanation:
Following are the common security problems involved in communications and email:
Eavesdropping: It is the act of secretly listening to private information through telephone lines, e-
mail, instant messaging, and any other method of communication considered private.
Identity theft: It is the act of obtaining someone's username and password to access his/her email
servers for reading email and sending false email messages. These credentials can be obtained
by eavesdropping on SMTP, POP, IMAP, or Webmail connections.
Message modification: The person who has system administrator permission on any of the SMTP
servers can visit anyone's message and can delete or change the message before it continues on
to its destination. The recipient has no way of telling that the email message has been altered.
False message: It the act of constructing messages that appear to be sent by someone else.
Message replay: In a message replay, messages are modified, saved, and re-sent later.
Message repudiation: In message repudiation, normal email messages can be forged. There is no
way for the receiver to prove that someone had sent him/her a particular message. This means
that even if someone has sent a message, he/she can successfully deny it.
Answer option B is incorrect. A message digest is a number that is created algorithmically from a
file and represents that file uniquely.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Wireless sniffer
- B. Performance Monitor
- C. Spectrum analyzer
- D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Protocol analyzer (also known as a network analyzer, packet analyzer or sniffer, or for particular types of networks, an Ethernet sniffer or wireless sniffer) is computer software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network. As data streams flow across the network, the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Answer option B is incorrect. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of an electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum.
NEW QUESTION # 112
What is the name of the authority that verifies the certificate authority in digital certificates?
- A. Directory management system
- B. Certificate Management system
- C. Certificate authority
- D. Registration authority
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.
- B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.
- C. It provides improved authentication and security.
- D. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.
- E. It uses 128-bit addresses.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addressing. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the problems that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility. With the fast increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP addresses are depleting rapidly, and the need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem, as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a lot more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6 address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654: BB32: 543C: FACE. Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used in IPv4 addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.
- B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.
- C. It provides improved authentication and security.
- D. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.
- E. It uses 128-bit addresses.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addressing. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the
problems that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility.
With the fast increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP
addresses are depleting rapidly, and the need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem,
as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a lot more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal
numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6 address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654:
BB32: 543C: FACE.
Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used
in IPv4 addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments?
- A. Network News Transfer Protocol
- B. Lightweight Presentation Protocol
- C. Internet Relay Chat Protocol
- D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: B
Explanation:
Lightweight Presentation Protocol (LPP) is a protocol that describes an approach to providing "streamlined" support of OSI application services on top of TCP/IP-based networks for some constrained environments. This protocol was initially derived from a requirement to run the ISO Common Management Information Protocol (CMIP) in TCP/IP-based networks.
This protocol is designed for a particular class of OSI applications, namely those entities whose application context includes only an Association Control Service Element (ACSE) and a Remote Operations Service Element (ROSE).
Answer option D is incorrect. The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a computer networking protocol used by hosts (DHCP clients) to retrieve IP address assignments and other configuration information.
DHCP uses a client-server architecture. The client sends a broadcast request for configuration information.
The DHCP server receives the request and responds with configuration information from its configuration database. In the absence of DHCP, all hosts on a network must be manually configured individually - a time- consuming and often error-prone undertaking. DHCP is popular with ISP's because it allows a host to obtain a temporary IP address.
Answer option A is incorrect. Answer option C is incorrect. Internet Relay Chat (IRC) is a chat service, which is a client-server protocol that supports real-time text chat between two or more users over a TCPIP network.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Jason has set a firewall policy that allows only a specific list of network services and denies everything else. This strategy is known as a ____________.
- A. Default access
- B. Default allow
- C. Default accept
- D. Default deny
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which has the following fields IPv6 header is reduced by 1 for each router that sends a packet?
- A. Flow label
- B. Next header
- C. traffic class
- D. None
- E. hop limit
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following type of UPS is used to supply power above 10kVA and provides an ideal electric output presentation, and its constant wear on the power components reduces the dependability?
- A. Line Interactive
- B. Stand by On-line hybrid
- C. Double conversion on-line
- D. Stand by Ferro
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following topologies is a type of physical network design where each computer in the network is connected to a central device through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire?
- A. Mesh topology
- B. Ring topology
- C. Star topology
- D. Bus topology
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following protocols is used by the Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) client/ server protocol for data transmission?
- A. FTP
- B. FCP
- C. UDP
- D. DCCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following representatives of the incident response team takes forensic backups of systems that
are the focus of an incident?
- A. Lead investigator
- B. Legal representative
- C. Information security representative
- D. Technical representative
Answer: D
Explanation:
A technical representative creates forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident and provides
valuable information about the configuration of the network and target system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A lead investigator acts as the manager of the computer security incident
response team.
Answer option D is incorrect. The legal representative looks after legal issues and ensures that the
investigation process does not break any law.
Answer option C is incorrect. The information security representative informs about the security safeguards
that may affect their ability to respond to the incident.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?
- A. Business Continuity Management
- B. Log analysis
- C. Patch management
- D. Incident handling
Answer: A
Explanation:
Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.
Answer option D is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks: Maintaining current knowledge of available patches Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems Ensuring that patches are installed properly Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations requiredA number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including RingMaster's Automated Patch Management, PatchLink Update, and Gibraltar's Everguard. Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid. Answer option B is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner. It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 123
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To obtain the EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification, individuals must pass the EC-Council 312-38 exam. 312-38 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and has a time limit of four hours. 312-38 exam covers topics such as network security, network defense, network protocols, network topology, network security policies, network security tools, and network security architecture. Individuals who pass the exam will be awarded the EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) certification, which is valid for three years.
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